0
Air air 585 Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

Preposition

Which one of the following is grammatically correct

1. the undersigned has no objection in the foreclosure of the work

2. the undersigned has no objection at foreclosing the work

3. the undersigned has no objection in foreclosing the work

4. the undersigned has no objection to foreclose the work

  

Top answer

They are all incorrect, because every sentence needs to start with a capital letter and end with correct punctuation. They also have other errors. The correct preposition is no objection to .

  • They are all incorrect, because every sentence needs to start with a capital letter and end with correct punctuation.
  • They also have other errors.
  • The correct preposition is no objection to .
  • We don't normally foreclose work.
  • What do you mean?
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0

They are all incorrect, because every sentence needs to start with a capital letter and end with correct punctuation.

They also have other errors. The correct preposition is no objection to.


We don't normally foreclose work. What do you mean? Can you find another word?

Clive

0

The actual words "Foreclose of work"do not appear in any of your sentences.

We don't say objection at or objection in. We say objection to.

I'd say eg 5. The undersigned has no objection to foreclosing the work

Related Questions