0
Maverick88 Posted 21 years ago
Grammar
Prefer
Today my teacher said that the correct preposition to use after prefer (smth ___ smth else) is "to". E.G.: I prefer playing soccer to swimming. Afterwards I asked if "prefer smth over smth" is possible too and she replied that it's wrong to say "over" after "prefer". I am just wondering if it really can be used because I saw it used so many times that it seemed to me completely correct. Any ideas? Thanks
Top answer
I think your teacher is correct. " is more right than "I prefer tea over coffee". But if the "wrong" form is used for a long time, it will become as right form as the predecessor.
- I think your teacher is correct.
- " is more right than "I prefer tea over coffee".
- But if the "wrong" form is used for a long time, it will become as right form as the predecessor.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
8 Answers
0
I think your teacher is correct.
"I prefer tea to coffee." is more right than "I prefer tea over coffee".
But if the "wrong" form is used for a long time, it will become as right form as the predecessor.
"I prefer tea to coffee." is more right than "I prefer tea over coffee".
But if the "wrong" form is used for a long time, it will become as right form as the predecessor.
00
It's a matter of register. "to" is in a higher register than "over". Your teacher is encouraging you to use the language of a higher register. Other than that, both are used all the time.
For questions about register,
For questions about register,
00
0
Hello M88 and other people
I got interested in why 'to' is used in the phrase "prefer A to B".
The verb prefer came into English in 14 c from French.
The sense of "prefer A to B" is 'set/hold A before/above B in favor or esteem'.
And so "prefer A before/above B" was more idiomatic than "prefer A to B" at least before 17 c.
(EX1) Before worldly thi
I got interested in why 'to' is used in the phrase "prefer A to B".
The verb prefer came into English in 14 c from French.
The sense of "prefer A to B" is 'set/hold A before/above B in favor or esteem'.
And so "prefer A before/above B" was more idiomatic than "prefer A to B" at least before 17 c.
(EX1) Before worldly thi
00
I suppose we might have known! The historically French expressions are now being preferred over the English! Tsk, tsk, tsk!
00
Hello Paco
I wonder whether the change you note has something to do with:
a) contrast with the use of 'prefer' to mean 'promote';
b) the fact that 'prefer' already contains 'before' (Latin, 'prae' = before + 'ferre').
Just a thought.
MrP
I wonder whether the change you note has something to do with:
a) contrast with the use of 'prefer' to mean 'promote';
b) the fact that 'prefer' already contains 'before' (Latin, 'prae' = before + 'ferre').
Just a thought.
MrP
00
Hello Mr P
Yeah you are right.
I read OED again and found the Latin praeferer means 'bear before'.
And the oldest use of 'prefer' quoted in OED was indeed used in the sense of 'promote'.
In this degree he neither prefers nor makes himself with the truth.[Wyclif 1388]
paco
Yeah you are right.
I read OED again and found the Latin praeferer means 'bear before'.
And the oldest use of 'prefer' quoted in OED was indeed used in the sense of 'promote'.
In this degree he neither prefers nor makes himself with the truth.[Wyclif 1388]
paco
00
Related Questions