possessive before a gerund?

Question

Hi,I am not sure if this could be called a gerund or verbal noun. I think a verbal is like: His speaking to his co-worker ... and a gerund is like: His speaking to his co-worker ...I think putting a possessive before a verbal noun is OK, but is this correct?I am not too sure as to the appropriateness of this case of puting a possessive before a gerund or verbal noun (don't know which).It is my going to God for someone else.

Clive · Accepted Answer

Hi,

I am not sure if this could be called a gerund or verbal noun. I think a verbal is like: His speaking to his co-worker ... and a gerund is like: His speaking to his co-worker ... Did you intend to write one of these differently?

I think putting a possessive before a verbal noun is OK, but is this correct?I just use the term 'gerund'. Possessives are fine with gerunds.

I am not too sure as to the appropriateness of this case of puting a possessive before a gerund or verbal noun (don't know which).

It is my going to *** for someone else. This is an awkward senetnce. I don't really understand its meaning clearly. But 'my going' is fine.

Best wishes, Clive

Anonymous · Answer

Thank you. Let me add some context to possibly make your job easier. In a material adapted from an address on prayer given by Rev. John S. Kimmons at the Embers to a Flame Conference in November 2006 titled "30 Days of Prayer for Church Renewal," in its Day 4 topic on Intercession, I got these sentences:

Not only do we have prayers and entreaties, but we also have intercession, or petitions. This is not an ordinary word. It is my going to *** for someone else. It means going into the presence of a King and making a request. This is key because we cannot enter the presence of a King, a sovereign ruler, and ask for anying that 's too big. I believe it was Spurgeon who said, "Thou art going to a King, great petitions with you bring; for His power and grace are such, that none can ever ask too much." *** is pleased by large requests.

Some questions:
1. Do you feel "my going .." is grammatically correct?
2. When you use the phrase like "I believe it was Spurgeon who said" and then follow that up with a content in quotation marks, Could what is in the quotation marks be a paraphrase of what Spurgeon said and not what he actually said?
3. Can 'none' be used to reference a person? I think that is what has been done in the writing above, but then the pronoun 'no one' seems be more accurate in terms of its ability denote a person.

Sorry for many questions.

CalifJim · Answer

It seems Clive has been away for more than an hour, so I'll post a reply for you while you wait for his response.
1. Do you feel "my going .." is grammatically correct? Yes.
2. When you use the phrase like "I believe it was Spurgeon who said" and then follow that up with a content in quotation marks, Could what is in the quotation marks be a paraphrase of what Spurgeon said and not what he actually said? No. It cannot be a paraphrase. It must be the exact words.
3. Can 'none' be used to reference a person? I think that is what has been done in the writing above, but then the pronoun 'no one' seems be more accurate in terms of its ability denote a person. 'none' can be used in reference to a person. Yes. It is somewhat more poetic, and the quoted material is a poem, so the use of 'none' makes sense here.
CJ

possessive before a gerund?

Top answer

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

Related Questions