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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Please help
A: It has been an hour to wait for you. Vs. I have waited you for an hour. What is the difference?
Top answer
" While they both say the same thing, the emphasis in the first sentence is on the amount of time; and in the second, it is on 'you'.
- " While they both say the same thing, the emphasis in the first sentence is on the amount of time; and in the second, it is on 'you'.
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4 Answers
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First, the sentences are:
"It has been an hour that I have waited for you." and "I have waited for you for an hour."
While they both say the same thing, the emphasis in the first sentence is on the amount of time; and in the second, it is on 'you'.
"It has been an hour that I have waited for you." and "I have waited for you for an hour."
While they both say the same thing, the emphasis in the first sentence is on the amount of time; and in the second, it is on 'you'.
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"It has been an hour since I have been waiting for you" is that correct?
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No, this is a new construction of sentence. "Since" requires a starting time (e.g., I have waited since 2 o'clock for you.)
In this case, the length of time would not be measurable, because we don't know what the current time is. (If it were now 2:15, you would have been waiting 15 minutes.)
In this case, the length of time would not be measurable, because we don't know what the current time is. (If it were now 2:15, you would have been waiting 15 minutes.)
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Anonymous"It has been an hour since I have been waiting for you" is that correct?No. You could say "It has been an hour since I stopped waiting for you", meaning that I no longer am waiting, after having waited for an hour.
"Since" isn't used with a verb construction, unless you are using it to mean "because". Since I have been waiting an hour, I'm l
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