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Cho7712 Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Phrase question
I think this phrase is also an example of the frozen form,what we call an idiom
e.g. There is no pleasing some people.
What I assume at best is for this weird sentence there should be omitting 'way of' after 'no'
so, There is no way of pleasing some people. Is my guess to be correct?
Otherwise, the adjective as being the form of progressive particle is preceded by the determiner.
And as far as I know, such arrangement is impossible in English. This statement is considered as the rule to the native speakers?
e.g. There is no pleasing some people.
What I assume at best is for this weird sentence there should be omitting 'way of' after 'no'
so, There is no way of pleasing some people. Is my guess to be correct?
Otherwise, the adjective as being the form of progressive particle is preceded by the determiner.
And as far as I know, such arrangement is impossible in English. This statement is considered as the rule to the native speakers?
Top answer
It is common enough, I think: There is no parking on this street. No spitting on the sidewalk. There is to be no talking during exams.
- It is common enough, I think: There is no parking on this street.
- No spitting on the sidewalk.
- There is to be no talking during exams.
- etc
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6 Answers
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It is common enough, I think:
There is no parking on this street.
No spitting on the sidewalk.
There is to be no talking during exams.
etc
There is no parking on this street.
No spitting on the sidewalk.
There is to be no talking during exams.
etc
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Thanks for your answer.
Though I think the examples in your reply are all fine at any angles, such as meaning, structures of each sentence.
Rather, the original example in my question is still confusing.
So I would directly ask as follows,
A. That form is derived from "There is no way of pleasing some
people" or else there is no way to justify its usage.
B. In English,
Though I think the examples in your reply are all fine at any angles, such as meaning, structures of each sentence.
Rather, the original example in my question is still confusing.
So I would directly ask as follows,
A. That form is derived from "There is no way of pleasing some
people" or else there is no way to justify its usage.
B. In English,
00
A.... there is no way to justify its usage.-- We do not justify usage; we observe it.
B...."progressive participle+determiner+noun " is incorrect and there is no single exception to this rule. -- I don't see the relation of this statement to the phrase, but 'He was caught red-handed dealing the drugs' easily fills that formula.
at your point of view, these two state
B...."progressive participle+determiner+noun " is incorrect and there is no single exception to this rule. -- I don't see the relation of this statement to the phrase, but 'He was caught red-handed dealing the drugs' easily fills that formula.
at your point of view, these two state
00
Thanks for your answer,
and there is a little error in my question, I rewrite then,
e.g. There is no pleasing some people.
a. To which category is 'pleasing' belong?
b. If 'pleasing' functions as an adjective,
does this structure come to use in general?
(e.g. There is no annoying some people, Pleasing two men are there, Confusing
and there is a little error in my question, I rewrite then,
e.g. There is no pleasing some people.
a. To which category is 'pleasing' belong?
b. If 'pleasing' functions as an adjective,
does this structure come to use in general?
(e.g. There is no annoying some people, Pleasing two men are there, Confusing
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a. To which category is 'pleasing' belong? -- In phrases like 'There is no pleasing/satisfying/arguing with/ some people', the '-ing' verb form looks mighty like a gerund to me: Otherwise, the sentence would have no real subject.
b. does this structure come to use in general?- No, I think it is quite limited in use. Your examples (the last 2 of which are not possible) sugg
b. does this structure come to use in general?- No, I think it is quite limited in use. Your examples (the last 2 of which are not possible) sugg
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