Phrasal Verb - To Take Off

Question

To Take OffDefinition: to remove an item of clothing from your (or someone's) body(This phrasal verb has more than one meaning)E.g.1: I took my shoes off and fell to sleep.E.g.2: She takes her clothes off when she will see me. (Is this sentense grammatically right?)

Ramcho · Accepted Answer

yes first sentence is grammatically true ( take sth off)

but second sentence is not suitable (when she will see me)

we can say "she will take her clothes off when she see me" that is correct

Vorpar · Answer

The second sentence also contains a split infinitive. If the verb is to take off, you can't add anything between take and off. It should read "She will take off her clothes".

Clive · Answer

Hi,

In slang, at least in NAmE, if someone says to you, 'I have to take off now', it means 'I have to leave now'.

Best wishes, Clive

Forbes · Answer

VorparThe second sentence also contains a split infinitive. If the verb is to take off, you can't add anything between take and off. It should read "She will take off her clothes".

There is no infinitive here. It is perfectly possible to say She will take her clothes off. Nothing wrong with it at all. You may be thinking of the rule that a sentence should not end with a preposition. Silly rule. Another silly rule is that you cannot split your infinitives. Both rules derive from grammarians who knew too much Latin, or rather tried to apply Latin grammar to English.

I love the sentence: What did you lock the book I was being read to out of up for? Five prepositions at the end!

Vorpar · Answer

My mistake. You can't split infinitive forms. Either form of that sentence is fine.

Clive · Answer

Hi,

I think it was Winston Churchill who said, about the so-called rule that you should not end a sentence with a preposition, that "this is a rule up with which we should not put".

Clive

Forbes · Answer

Vorpar You can't split infinitive forms.

Have a look at this:

MrPedantic · Answer

Both rules derive from grammarians who knew too much Latin, or rather tried to apply Latin grammar to English.

I'd be interested to know which grammarians based their "split infinitive" prescriptions on Latin grammar.

MrP

Forbes · Answer

Apparently no one in particular. I quote from the Wikipedia article:

It is speculated that the rule against split infinitives developed around the beginning of the English Renaissance, as English grammarians, trained to look to Ancient Greek and Latin as ideal languages, took a closer look at their own mother tongue. Although we have no documentation of any authority who has used this criticism (rather than ascribing it to others), it is worth examining.
In Ancient Greek and Latin, it is impossible to split present-tense infinitives, because they are formed by adding a suffix to a verb root. For example, in Latin, the infinitival suffix "-are" is added to the root "amo-" to form amare, "to love." Similarly, in Greek, the suffix "-ein" is added to the root "phil-" to form philein, "to love." It is assumed that the educated classes, who considered Classical culture and language more perfect than their own, came to (rather arbitrarily) scorn the heretofore innocent and inconspicuous English split infinitive.

MrPedantic · Answer

It's an interesting progression. We begin with an admission that no one is known to have used the criticism; then we speculate as to the form that criticism might have taken; then "someone" (who?) assumes that the "educated classes" (who? when?) considered Classical culture and language more perfect than their own; then those same "educated classes" are ascribed not merely "scorn" for the construction, but arbitrary scorn...

MrP

Phrasal Verb - To Take Off

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