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Jukerlaw Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

Perfect/Passive Perfect Participle

I know a boy who has won the game 3 times.

1. I know a boy winning the game 3 times.

2. I know a boy having won the game 3 times.

Are these two grammatical? and do they have same meaning?

As the school had been damaged by the flood, the school had to be rebuilt.

1. Damaged badly by the flood, the school had to be rebuilt.

2. Having been damaged by the flood, the school had to be rebuilt.

I quote this example from a website, and they rewrite the sentence as in (1). Question is: Can I wrote it like the (2)?

Thanks in advance.

  

Top answer

Jukerlaw 1. I know a boy winning the game 3 times. 2.

— GPY

  • Jukerlaw 1.
  • I know a boy winning the game 3 times.
  • 2.
  • I know a boy having won the game 3 times.
  • Are these two grammatical?
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2 Answers
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Jukerlaw1. I know a boy winning the game 3 times.
2. I know a boy having won the game 3 times.
Are these two grammatical?

No, at least not in the meaning that you intend. (2) is technically grammatical, but it would mean that the speaker has won the game three times, and somehow as a consequence knows a boy. It is hard to think of any context in whi

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JukerlawI know a boy who has won the game 3 times.
1. I know a boy winning the game 3 times.
2. I know a boy having won the game 3 times.

'3' should be written as 'three'.

The expected transformations are not idiomatic, so this item is not good. In my opinion, it should not have been assigned.

JukerlawAs the school
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