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Anonymous Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Perfect participle?

Hi,
I just have read an article about August Landmesser and found this sentence, but don't know the actual grammar construction "after being killed"

"He was declared missing in action, after being killed during fighting in Croatia on 17 October 1944"

Are there any rules for this ing+ed form?
My guess is that it might be a passive-present participle construction, am I right on this? But what would be the difference between:

"The man being killed by X had done this"
"The man killed by X had done this"

Oh..and one last question:
Could you shorten the above sentence even more:
"the man killed had done this" (or is the connection between both clauses now missing?)

Thank you! Emotion: smile
  

Top answer

Anonymous grammar construction "after being killed" It's a participle construction equivalent to 'after he was killed'. Anonymous Are there any rules for this ing+ed form? My guess is that it might be a passive-present participle construction Correct.

  • Anonymous grammar construction "after being killed" It's a participle construction equivalent to 'after he was killed'.
  • Anonymous Are there any rules for this ing+ed form?
  • My guess is that it might be a passive-present participle construction Correct.
  • Anonymous 1) "The man being killed by X had done this" 2) "The man killed by X had done this" In 1) the man is undergoing the fate of being killed at the time the speaker says this.
  • In 2) the man was killed earlier.
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4 Answers
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Anonymousgrammar construction "after being killed"
It's a participle construction equivalent to 'after he was killed'.
AnonymousAre there any rules for this ing+ed form? My guess is that it might be a passive-present participle construction
Correct.
Anonymous1) "The man being killed by X had done this
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Thank you very much...oh, yeah. I must have thought about the perfect construction and left it in the header.

One more question:
Could you use other verbs like "be" to connect the participle to the noun, like for example (with "is")?

"The man is being killed (by someone)"
"The man is having killed (a mouse)"
"The man is having been killed (by someone)"

Would
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Oh...and one additional question:

What excactly is the difference in meaning between:

"Having been killed" and "After(!) being killed"
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AnonymousWhat excactly exactly is the difference in meaning between:"Having been killed" and "After(!) being killed"?
They are equivalent in the sentence you quoted. The first seems a bit more stative to my ear (~ now that he was dead), and the second more dynamic (~ aft

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