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Mezzi1983 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
Perfect of linking verb "be"?
In the sentence "I have been happy" is "have been" classified as a linking verb? It seems to be in the perfect tense/aspect though? Can a linking verb be in the perfect (e.g., "have appeared," etc.)?
How about the sentence "I have been married (for 10 years)." Is this construction the same as above; that is, the verb is a "perfect linking verb." Compare that with the sentence "I have been married (by the priest)." Is this a passive perfect because married is being used as a transitive verb rather than as an adjective as in the sentence above?
How about the sentence "I have been married (for 10 years)." Is this construction the same as above; that is, the verb is a "perfect linking verb." Compare that with the sentence "I have been married (by the priest)." Is this a passive perfect because married is being used as a transitive verb rather than as an adjective as in the sentence above?
Top answer
In English, the verb "to be" is always a linking verb no matter what form it appears in. So, "am", "are", "was", "will be" "have been" are all forms of the verb "to be", therefore, they are all linking verbs. The second sentence: I have been married (for 10 years) is the same as the first.
- In English, the verb "to be" is always a linking verb no matter what form it appears in.
- So, "am", "are", "was", "will be" "have been" are all forms of the verb "to be", therefore, they are all linking verbs.
- The second sentence: I have been married (for 10 years) is the same as the first.
- However, the third sentence is not the same as the other two because it is a passive perfect of the verb "to marry", not of the verb "to be".
- Remember, in English "have" is used to form the perfect, and "is" to form the passive so that when they both come together as in the third example and come before a past participle, they form a passive perfect.
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4 Answers
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In English, the verb "to be" is always a linking verb no matter what form it appears in. So, "am", "are", "was", "will be" "have been" are all forms of the verb "to be", therefore, they are all linking verbs.
The second sentence:
I have been married (for 10 years)
is the same as the first. However, the third sentence is not the same as the other two because it is a pas
The second sentence:
I have been married (for 10 years)
is the same as the first. However, the third sentence is not the same as the other two because it is a pas
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Mezzi1983In the sentence "I have been happy" is "have been" classified as a linking verb? It seems to be in the perfect tense/aspect though? Can a linking verb be in the perfect (e.g., "have appeared," etc.)?Yes. "have been" is a linking verb. A linking verb can be in any tense you want. "have been" is the present perfect of "to be".
Mezz
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The verb be is not always linking. It can be used as intransitive when follwed by an adverb phrase or adverb. It is only linking when used as the main verb and linking a noun, pronoun, adjective, or phrase functioning as such to the subject. Function is the key!
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