0
김영재 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
perfect ~ing
Hello~!
I'm afraid I have two questions about a English sentence.^^
"There is an enormous amount of french ill-will towards the way the British are seen as having lived off the fat of Russia's oligarchs"
(taken by "The economist)
1. What is the meaning of "having lived off~"?
In "having lived off~", "Having +ed" is perfect ~ing form,isn't it?
So then it is natural to interpret "having lived off~" as the past meaning?
2.Why were "the" used in "the British"?
I mean ,"The" isn't used in a nation's title,isn't it?
Thank you for reading my questions!
I'd appreciated your gracious help!
I'm afraid I have two questions about a English sentence.^^
"There is an enormous amount of french ill-will towards the way the British are seen as having lived off the fat of Russia's oligarchs"
(taken by "The economist)
1. What is the meaning of "having lived off~"?
In "having lived off~", "Having +ed" is perfect ~ing form,isn't it?
So then it is natural to interpret "having lived off~" as the past meaning?
2.Why were "the" used in "the British"?
I mean ,"The" isn't used in a nation's title,isn't it?
Thank you for reading my questions!
I'd appreciated your gracious help!
Top answer
1. The perfect participle, formed as "having + past participle", is a kind of "participle-ised" form of the present perfect tense. ".
- 1.
- The perfect participle, formed as "having + past participle", is a kind of "participle-ised" form of the present perfect tense.
- ".
- 2.
- "the British" means the British people, not the nation.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
4 Answers
0
1. The perfect participle, formed as "having + past participle", is a kind of "participle-ised" form of the present perfect tense. Put another way, the French perception is that "the British have lived off ...".
2. "the British" means the British people, not the nation.
2. "the British" means the British people, not the nation.
00
| So thank you for correcting me!! Okay! I've totally understood the second question about "the" But the first question about 'having ~ing'(perfect gerund) is still confusing me. Perfect gerund is generally interpreted as the past meaning? There is no remains of "perfect tenses"? Here is the s |
00
???But Perfect gerund cannot have the the same kind of meaing as perfect tensesand only have the meaning of past tenses?In fact, both are possible; for example:
the pleasure of having lived a useful life ("present perfect" meaning)
the pleasure of having lived there for three years in my youth ("past tense" meaning)
I read
00
Thank you for correcting me!!
I've totally understood what you mean!!
Very very thank you! GPY!
I've totally understood what you mean!!
Very very thank you! GPY!
0
Related Questions