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Joon2257 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Perfect gerund

I learned that "In using gerund, if one action happens before another action, we use 'having + past participle' for the first action."

I want to make sure if I understand the principle correctly in [1] and [2].

And I also want to know why the principle is exceptional in some situations like in [3].

[1]. My grandfather takes pride in serving in the army in his 20s. [X]

My grandfather takes pride in having served in the army in his 20s. [O]

[2]. She arrived late. She felt sorry for keeping him waiting so long. [X]

She arrived late. She felt sorry for having kept him waiting so long. [O]

[3]. She graduated from the University without missing a day. [O]

She graduated from the University without having missed a day. [O]
  

Top answer

The symbols came out a little strange, but I assume those are "OK" and "Error" symbols at the ends of your sentences. Those in [ 1 ] are correctly labeled "Error" and "Correct". Both versions in [ 2 ] are correct.

  • The symbols came out a little strange, but I assume those are "OK" and "Error" symbols at the ends of your sentences.
  • Those in [ 1 ] are correctly labeled "Error" and "Correct".
  • Both versions in [ 2 ] are correct.
  • The first of the two versions can be used either for her keeping him waiting now or her having kept him waiting on some previous occasion.
  • The second can only be used in the latter meaning.
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1 Answers
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The symbols came out a little strange, but I assume those are "OK" and "Error" symbols at the ends of your sentences.

Those in [ 1 ] are correctly labeled "Error" and "Correct".
Both versions in [ 2 ] are correct. The first of the two versions can be used either for her keeping him waiting now or her having kept him waiting on some previous occasion. The second can only be used in t

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