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LouiST Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Perfect
1) Before I die, I want to have reached something.
2) Before I die, I want to reach something.
In German, only the first one is correct. Which do we use? I have already asked a similar question:
a) I will text you after I have eaten.
b) I will text you after I eat.
And then someone said both are grammatical but b) is commonly used. Why?? You text someone after you have finished with eating. It's hard to get it, because as I said in German b) is totally wrong^^ I know I should not compare it with German, but I do it automatically.
And if I set it into the present: I'm texting you because I'm done eating./I have finished with eating. And not: I'm texting you because I'm eating.... You see what my difficult is?
So it is normal in English to use 2) / b) ? And not 1) / a) ?
Same here:
1a) After I have worked (or have been working???) one year, I will take vacation.
2a) After I work one year, I will take vacation.
I guess 2) , b) and 2a) are right, because I have often seen these. But why?? And somebody told me both are grammatical, so I don't want to here this again, I want to hear from a native speaker which one is used. And maybe why
Haha sorry if this sounds hard.
Thanks in advance!!!
LS
2) Before I die, I want to reach something.
In German, only the first one is correct. Which do we use? I have already asked a similar question:
a) I will text you after I have eaten.
b) I will text you after I eat.
And then someone said both are grammatical but b) is commonly used. Why?? You text someone after you have finished with eating. It's hard to get it, because as I said in German b) is totally wrong^^ I know I should not compare it with German, but I do it automatically.
And if I set it into the present: I'm texting you because I'm done eating./I have finished with eating. And not: I'm texting you because I'm eating.... You see what my difficult is?
So it is normal in English to use 2) / b) ? And not 1) / a) ?
Same here:
1a) After I have worked (or have been working???) one year, I will take vacation.
2a) After I work one year, I will take vacation.
I guess 2) , b) and 2a) are right, because I have often seen these. But why?? And somebody told me both are grammatical, so I don't want to here this again, I want to hear from a native speaker which one is used. And maybe why
Haha sorry if this sounds hard.Thanks in advance!!!
LS
Top answer
Yes both versions are correct in all examples. Lets look at example 2 that you give. I will text you after I have eaten or I will text you after I eat.
- Yes both versions are correct in all examples.
- Lets look at example 2 that you give.
- I will text you after I have eaten or I will text you after I eat.
- The meaning is really the same.
- What is differeent is the aspect (perfect or simple).
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1 Answers
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Yes both versions are correct in all examples.
Lets look at example 2 that you give.
I will text you after I have eaten or I will text you after I eat. The meaning is really the same. What is differeent is the aspect (perfect or simple). The perfect is being used to say I eat, then I text so they are happening in a diferent order that they are spoken in. By using the time mar
Lets look at example 2 that you give.
I will text you after I have eaten or I will text you after I eat. The meaning is really the same. What is differeent is the aspect (perfect or simple). The perfect is being used to say I eat, then I text so they are happening in a diferent order that they are spoken in. By using the time mar
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