and
[....is] payable withing 30 days days of the date of the publisher’s signature
?Thanks in advance
Should payment be in arrears by six months after the date first mentioned in [..] hereof, all rights herein conveyed shall automatically revert to the Proprietors
There is no similarity between the two. Have you looked up the meanings of 'payable' and 'in arrears'?
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soheil1Yes, but the results are the same. In both you had to pay but didn't, as far as I underswtood, right?No. The first simply says that the money must be paid with a certain time. There is nothing about non-payment.
soheil1Then why does he first give me 30 days and then says that if it is longer than six months in arrears, the rights will be reversed?Apparently those are the terms of the agreement. You'll have to ask him why he set up the agreement that way.
soheil1YesThen all is clear as far as the language is concerned.