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Stenka25 Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
Past Tense vs. Past Perfect Tense
Past Tense vs. Past Perfect Tense
This sentence comes from a source as follows:
https://books.google.co.kr/books?id=7Xk0AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA171&lpg=PA171&dq=%22a+cold+wind+has+been+blowing,+it+has+rained%22&source=bl&ots=yhLqsx-qA9&sig=CxEVGofkHbN-4yPzgGRXH--zXR4&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjHv9fckNDJAhWBnJQKHRg1BccQ6AEIGjAA#v=onepage&q=%22a%20cold%20wind%20has%20been%20blowing%2C%20and%20it%20has%20rained%22&f=false
?The view from the top of the hill was dismal; every house in the valley had been destroyed by the flood.
?The new television show received dismal ratings and was canceled before its third episode had aired.
In these two sentences they seem to have the seemingly same tense structures, first, past tense, last, past perfect tense.
But to me the two appear to me significantly different.
The logic of #1 in terms of tense seems pretty reasonable.
The view was dismal.
Why?
For every house had been destroyed by the flood, that is, the destruction had been done first, then the view became dismal.
But the logic fails me in #2 sentence.
The receiving of dismal ratings happened first, then came the cancelling of airing the third episode of the show.
How 'had aired' can be possible?
More absurd, the show wasn't aired in the first place.
Regards.
This sentence comes from a source as follows:
https://books.google.co.kr/books?id=7Xk0AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA171&lpg=PA171&dq=%22a+cold+wind+has+been+blowing,+it+has+rained%22&source=bl&ots=yhLqsx-qA9&sig=CxEVGofkHbN-4yPzgGRXH--zXR4&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjHv9fckNDJAhWBnJQKHRg1BccQ6AEIGjAA#v=onepage&q=%22a%20cold%20wind%20has%20been%20blowing%2C%20and%20it%20has%20rained%22&f=false
?The view from the top of the hill was dismal; every house in the valley had been destroyed by the flood.
?The new television show received dismal ratings and was canceled before its third episode had aired.
In these two sentences they seem to have the seemingly same tense structures, first, past tense, last, past perfect tense.
But to me the two appear to me significantly different.
The logic of #1 in terms of tense seems pretty reasonable.
The view was dismal.
Why?
For every house had been destroyed by the flood, that is, the destruction had been done first, then the view became dismal.
But the logic fails me in #2 sentence.
The receiving of dismal ratings happened first, then came the cancelling of airing the third episode of the show.
How 'had aired' can be possible?
More absurd, the show wasn't aired in the first place.
Regards.
Top answer
I have written several posts on the topic of " before with the past perfect". See the links below. Essentially, you use that construction exactly when the event in the before -clause did not occur, could not occur, or was interrupted from occurring.
- I have written several posts on the topic of " before with the past perfect".
- See the links below.
- Essentially, you use that construction exactly when the event in the before -clause did not occur, could not occur, or was interrupted from occurring.
- CJ
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4 Answers
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I have written several posts on the topic of "before with the past perfect". See the links below. Essentially, you use that construction exactly when the event in the before-clause did not occur, could not occur, or was interrupted from occurring.
CJ
CJ
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Thanks a lot as always, CJ
Your reply below in another thread has made crystal clear everything I asked.
Especially thi
Your reply below in another thread has made crystal clear everything I asked.
Especially thi
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Stenka25Your reply below in another thread has made crystal clear everything I asked.Oh, good! That's wonderful. I'm glad you found it helpful to read it.
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