This feels like a stupid question, but in the sentence:
"She will not be tamed."
Why do we use the past participle of tame in a future tense sentence?
Thanks in advance.
I apologize for the stupid question
LD DIRKER Why do we use the past participle of tame in a future tense sentence? Past participles are used with the auxiliary verbs 'be' and 'have'. With 'be' they make the passive voice.
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LD DIRKERWhy do we use the past participle of tame in a future tense sentence?
Past participles are used with the auxiliary verbs 'be' and 'have'.
With 'be' they make the passive voice. With 'have' they make perfect tenses.
tame: we tame it; we tamed it; we will tame it
have tamed: we have tamed it; we had tamed it; we will hav
"be tamed" is a passive infinitive. It is formed from "(to) be + past participle". The reason why so-called "past" participles are used in passive constructions is non-obvious to ordinary speakers. Only a specialist in the history of the language would have an informed idea. Or it could be that "past" participle is a bit of a misnomer anyway.
(Cross-posted.)