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SuperESL Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Past tense
"Preying on the minds of the Soviet leaders, it appears, was a besetting angst over impurities within the party’s own ranks, a pointer to a fixation with class that seems [to have belied] Stalin's promises of clement treatment for the bourgeoisie."
Am I correct to use "to have belied" instead of "to belie"? I am unsure about this as the action in question ("i.e. belie") is not really an actual action that took place in the past.
Thank you.
Am I correct to use "to have belied" instead of "to belie"? I am unsure about this as the action in question ("i.e. belie") is not really an actual action that took place in the past.
Thank you.
Top answer
Either one is acceptable. e. it has no tense.
- Either one is acceptable.
- e.
- it has no tense.
- "to have belied" is related to something occurring in past time.
- The sentence is in past time, so it fits.
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1 Answers
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Either one is acceptable.
"to belie" is universal time - i.e. it has no tense.
"to have belied" is related to something occurring in past time. The sentence is in past time, so it fits.
"to belie" is universal time - i.e. it has no tense.
"to have belied" is related to something occurring in past time. The sentence is in past time, so it fits.
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