0
Ulmo13 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Past Simple/Present Perfect

Hi guys, what's the difference between these two sentences? Why the first one is incorrent?

1. I never had a daughter because I never had a wife.
2. I have never had a daughter because i have never had a wife.
  

Top answer

The first one is not incorrect. It has the feeling of being spoken by an old man who no longer has any prospect of having a daughter. In the second sentence the possibility is more open.

— GPY

  • The first one is not incorrect.
  • It has the feeling of being spoken by an old man who no longer has any prospect of having a daughter.
  • In the second sentence the possibility is more open.
  • The first sentence could also be used by someone whose life had changed substantially, so the time when they did not have a daughter was a "previous life".
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

4 Answers
0
The first one is not incorrect. It has the feeling of being spoken by an old man who no longer has any prospect of having a daughter. In the second sentence the possibility is more open. The first sentence could also be used by someone whose life had changed substantially, so the time when they did not have a daughter was a "previous life".
0
0
#1 is OK if you are speaking only about the past.
eg
Tom: When you lived in China for 30 years, did you have a daughter?
Bob: I never had a daughter because I never had a wife.

#2 is OK if the focus is on the present situation
0
0
Ulmo13Why the first one is incorrent?
Why is the first one is incorrect?
0
0
Thanks for the explanation, now I get it Emotion: wink
0

Related Questions