Past perfect vs past Indefinite

Question

Iran had denied for several days that a missile caused the crash.

Why had is used here. Can't it in this way

Iran denied for several days that a missile caused the crash.

Please tell what is difference between the two sentences.

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

virat1971what is the difference

Iran had denied ...

Something else happened. Iran had denied (something) BEFORE the something else happened.

First event: Two days ago Iran claimed that they did not shoot down the Ukrainian plane.
Second event: Today they admitted that they shot down the plane.

But you can tell the story in the reverse order:
Second event: Today Iran admitted that they shot down the Ukrainian plane.
First event: They had denied that they had shot down the plane.

Saying "had denied" and "had shot" is like saying "this event happened earlier than the event that I just told you about".

See

CJ

BillJ · Answer

virat1971
Iran had denied for several days that a missile caused the crash.
Why had is used here. Can't it in this way
Iran denied for several days that a missile caused the crash.
Please tell what is difference between the two sentences.

You might say that the perfect is redundant here since the anterior (past) meaning is conveyed by "for several days".

Thus depending on context, your suggested alternant might be possible, for example:

Iran denied for several days that a missile caused the crash, and then finally admitted that it had.

Past perfect vs past Indefinite

Top answer

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

Related Questions