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Tmnt53 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

Past perfect tense or present perfect tense?

Question26: It _ _ _ _ _ _ _ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
The answer is B, but I think it should be D. Besides, the comma in "apart, I did not" is misused. Right?
  

Top answer

Hi Yes, I too think the same. I think since we parted sounds better than we were apart. I would like to know what native speakers have to say about it.

— Vsuresh

  • Hi Yes, I too think the same.
  • I think since we parted sounds better than we were apart.
  • I would like to know what native speakers have to say about it.
  • As for the comma, I think it is used incorrectly.
  • It looks like a run-on sentence- without right use of conjunction.
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6 Answers
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Hi
Yes, I too think the same. I think since we parted sounds better than we were apart. I would like to know what native speakers have to say about it.
As for the comma, I think it is used incorrectly.
It looks like a run-on sentence- without right use of conjunction.
It has been a long time since we were apart and so I did not recognize her.
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vsureshI think since we parted sounds better than we were apart.
I entirely agree that since we parted makes much more sense. The original version would denote "I did not recognize her because we have been together for a long time."
A semi-colon should be used instead of a comma.
I prefer D.
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So are both B and D correct?
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tmnt53So are both B and D correct?
B is correct.
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Yes, but has been can only be used if the meeting when you failed to recognize her occurred very recently. Had been could be used for a recent meeting (although you would almost certainly use has been if the meeting took place ten minutes ago) and would be used for a meeting that occurred a long time ago.
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