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HeloOO Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

past perfect grammar questions

I have 2 questions:

1. [some long text] could damage the firm -- a firm whose stock price had already dropped close to 27% since two of its highly leveraged hedge funds had imploded in June.
Should the underlined be 'imploded' ?

2. Tay had exposed himself to two other girls at the void decks in [some place] on Sept 25 last year and Jan 25 and had two others considered.
Should it be 'exposed' instead due to the dates given?

3. The blogger, a 20-year-old student, claimed that the molester had touched her friend at 1.40pm that day.
Should it be 'touched'? There is a time '1:40pm' here
  

Top answer

heloOO I have 2 3 questions: 1. [some long text] could damage the firm -- a firm whose stock price had already dropped close to 27% since two of its highly leveraged hedge funds had imploded in June. Should the underlined be 'imploded' ?

  • heloOO I have 2 3 questions: 1.
  • [some long text] could damage the firm -- a firm whose stock price had already dropped close to 27% since two of its highly leveraged hedge funds had imploded in June.
  • Should the underlined be 'imploded' ?
  • The answer to your question is undoubtedly buried in the [some long text] you've secreted.
  • " We don't know if the previous lines mention a past event which followed the two expressed here in the past perfect.
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12 Answers
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heloOOI have 2 3 questions:

1. [some long text] could damage the firm -- a firm whose stock price had already dropped close to 27% since two of its highly leveraged hedge funds had imploded in June.
Should the underlined be 'imploded' ? The answer to your question is undoubtedly buried in the [some long text] you've secrete
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AvangiYes, absent previous context.
The past perfect doesn't require a prior event. It can also be used in a narrative.
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heloOOShould the underlined be 'imploded' ?
Not really. It goes well with had already dropped.
____
Your other two questions are concerned with a definite time mentioned in the same sentence with a past perfect tense. This is completely fine.
It is, in fact, the present perfect tense to which the objection applies. Don't us
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Thanks. I didn't know that time can be used with past perfect.

So it makes sense to say
'I ate at 7pm. I had eaten at 6pm'.?

How about
'I ate at 7pm. I had eaten at 6pm. I had eaten at 630pm' ( does this look like 630pm is earlier than 6pm )?
Or should i rephrase to 'i ate at 6pm, 630pm and 7pm'?
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heloOO My two cents:

Thanks. I didn't know that time can be used with past perfect.

So it makes sense to say
'I ate at 7pm. I had eaten at 6pm'.? Well yes, why not?

How about
'I ate at 7pm. I had eaten at 6pm. I had eaten at 630pm' ( does this look li
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I don't know what you're trying to convey by putting both the simple past and the past perfect together, but yes, it makes sense to say:
I had eaten at 6 pm.
CJ
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Suppose i have

1. I ate at 6pm. I also ate at 7pm. I had eaten.
Does the underlined sentence mean eaten before 6pm or 7pm?

2. I ate at 6pm and 7pm. I had eaten.
Similarly, does it mean before 6pm or 7pm?
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You are making this more complicated than it is! There is nothing about the past perfect that tells what time the action happened unless you add that information yourself.
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I came across this:

"I had indeed seen scavengers: small, burrowing creatures that feed upon carrion. Unlike most animals of this type, however, they are extremely aggressive and will not hesitate to attack those unfortunate enough to encounter them. Scavengers have powerful legs which they use for swift springing attacks, striking at vulnerable faces and throats."


W
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Hi,
Undoubtedly because of prior context. Can you still provide it?? - A.

Also, take a look at Huevos' post on the previous page. He talks about certain narrative styles.

In either case, it would be very helpful to see what has gone before.

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