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Peter T Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Past perfect and the state of referred objects
I'm doing exersises and in one of them there are two statements: 1) John has never met his father. 2) John never met his father; and two other statements a) John's father is alive b) John's father is probably dead. I had to juxtapose 1-a and 2-b. But i dont understand why is that? How 'has' indicates the father's living? Please help...
Top answer
The present perfect is used of situations in a time period that extends up to the present. Its use in "John has never met his father" suggests that the period of not-meeting extends up to the present moment only. A meeting may occur in the future, so the father is presumed alive.
- The present perfect is used of situations in a time period that extends up to the present.
- Its use in "John has never met his father" suggests that the period of not-meeting extends up to the present moment only.
- A meeting may occur in the future, so the father is presumed alive.
- In "John never met his father", the past tense indicates a non-meeting in a completed past-time period, so the father is presumed dead.
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2 Answers
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The present perfect is used of situations in a time period that extends up to the present. Its use in "John has never met his father" suggests that the period of not-meeting extends up to the present moment only. A meeting may occur in the future, so the father is presumed alive.
In "John never met his father", the past tense indicates a non-meeting in a completed past-time period, so the
In "John never met his father", the past tense indicates a non-meeting in a completed past-time period, so the
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non-meeting is completed (and can't be undone?)
thanks much, it's a very intelligible explanation
thanks much, it's a very intelligible explanation
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