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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Past perfect after the phrase "after having + p.p" or "having + p.p."?
Hi. Is it OK to use a past perfect tense after phrases like "having + p.p" or "after having + p.p."? Does it have to be a past tense?
eg,
He had eaten another meal after having eaten a meal.
Having eaten a meal, He had eaten another meal.
eg,
He had eaten another meal after having eaten a meal.
Having eaten a meal, He had eaten another meal.
Top answer
It's a grammatical construction, but quite awkward stylistically. I don't imagine a native speaker would be a context that required that construction more than once every ten to fifteen years, if ever! CJ
- It's a grammatical construction, but quite awkward stylistically.
- I don't imagine a native speaker would be a context that required that construction more than once every ten to fifteen years, if ever!
- CJ
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2 Answers
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It's a grammatical construction, but quite awkward stylistically. I don't imagine a native speaker would be a context that required that construction more than once every ten to fifteen years, if ever!
CJ
CJ
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Grammatically it is correct and useful. The same sentence has been used by New York Times today:
"John Kerry had decided to go to Geneva after having consulted with Lady Ashton".
Just you have to concern to the sequence of actions, in the above sentence John Kerry consulted with Lady ashton at first and then he decided to go to Geneva.
"John Kerry had decided to go to Geneva after having consulted with Lady Ashton".
Just you have to concern to the sequence of actions, in the above sentence John Kerry consulted with Lady ashton at first and then he decided to go to Geneva.
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