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Jack112 Posted 21 years ago
Grammar
Past Perfect
[url="http://dictionary.cambridge.org/define.asp?key=37603&dict=CALD"]
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Are these correct? If not, why? What do they mean?
1. children from a broken home (= from a family in which the parents had separated)
2. children from a broken home (= from a family in which the parents have separated)
How come cambridge didn't use 'have' instead of 'had'? What is the point of using 'have' vs 'had' and vice versa?
Thanks.
[/url]
Are these correct? If not, why? What do they mean?
1. children from a broken home (= from a family in which the parents had separated)
2. children from a broken home (= from a family in which the parents have separated)
How come cambridge didn't use 'have' instead of 'had'? What is the point of using 'have' vs 'had' and vice versa?
Thanks.
Top answer
Cambridge should have used ' have separated'; it is simply stating a definition, and past perfect makes no grammatical sense here. Past perfect is needed in complex structures when one of two stated past events must be clearly seen as predating and independent of the other. EVERYONE makes mistakes on occasion, Jack.
- Cambridge should have used ' have separated'; it is simply stating a definition, and past perfect makes no grammatical sense here.
- Past perfect is needed in complex structures when one of two stated past events must be clearly seen as predating and independent of the other.
- EVERYONE makes mistakes on occasion, Jack.
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1 Answers
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Cambridge should have used 'have separated'; it is simply stating a definition, and past perfect makes no grammatical sense here. Past perfect is needed in complex structures when one of two stated past events must be clearly seen as predating and independent of the other.
EVERYONE makes mistakes on occasion, Jack.
EVERYONE makes mistakes on occasion, Jack.
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