Good morning.
I just wanted to be sure upon the understanding of the following topic: when constructing a passive voice using an auxiliary verb which is constructed with the "to" particle, such as "ought to" or "have to", does the verb to be(conjugated in the infinitive form due to the already present "to")is used as an auxiliary verb, in this conjugation, to form the passive voice?
" I have to be interested on something."(Passive voice)
" Something has to interest me."(Active voice)
I already thank you for your time and patience.
Examples: I have to return my library books by Tuesday. -> My library books have to be returned by Tuesday. You ought to lock all the doors at night.
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Examples:
I have to return my library books by Tuesday. -> My library books have to be returned by Tuesday.
You ought to lock all the doors at night. -> All the doors ought to be locked at night.
Your example is not quite right. We don't say "interested on something"; normally we say "interested in something", but "be interested" is usually con