Is it true that the passive voice of "I have a car" is "A car is owned by me", and the passive voice of "I have breakfast" is " Breakfast is eaten by me"?
Applying the grammatical rules mechanically, the passive versions would be "A car is had by me" and "Breakfast is had by me". "A car is had by me" does not work at all. "A car is owned by me" is intelligible but it is a clunky sentence that pretty much no one would ever want to use.
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Applying the grammatical rules mechanically, the passive versions would be "A car is had by me" and "Breakfast is had by me". "A car is had by me" does not work at all. "A car is owned by me" is intelligible but it is a clunky sentence that pretty much no one would ever want to use. Because the verb has be