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BW2/3 Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

partly due.

Courts have been ambivalent on this one, partly due to the shifting majorities on the Supreme Court.

Questions:

What does 'partly due.......the Supreme Court" modify?

Does it modify 'courts' or 'courts.......on this one'?

What do we call 'partly due......the Supreme Court' in grammar terminology?

Can I say:

Partly due to the shifting majorities on the Supreme Court, courts have been ambivalent on this one.

Does both sentences share the same meaning?

Thank you
  

Top answer

the Supreme Court", because "due to" means "because of". The author could also have written: Courts have been ambivalent on this one, partly because of the shifting majorities on the Supreme Court. Cheers, NewPhilologist

  • the Supreme Court", because "due to" means "because of".
  • The author could also have written: Courts have been ambivalent on this one, partly because of the shifting majorities on the Supreme Court.
  • Cheers, NewPhilologist
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2 Answers
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Hi BW2/3,

You shouldn't read it as "'partly due.......the Supreme Court", because "due to" means "because of". The author could also have written:

Courts have been ambivalent on this one, partly because of the shifting majorities on the Supreme Court.


Cheers,
NewPhilologist
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It tells you why they have been ambivelent. It doesn't modify the (lower case) courts, but their actions.

Your rewrite is fine - Partly due to (or because of) can start the sentene. It's a dependent clause. But by putting it at the front, you are are stressing the Supreme Court; in it's original location, the sentence emphasized the ambivilence of the other courts.

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