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Anonymous Posted 10 years ago
Grammar
parenthetic tense
The edition which most people usually think of as the first one of this dictionary was the only English dictionary which students at the college where I did my freshman and sophomore years of study, in the mid-1960s, were permitted to cite as their lexical authority (the then recently debased "Collegiate" dictionary from Merriam-Webster, 'having been' prime among the dictionaries that students were forbidden to use in writing their papers and assignments).
It's a reviews that I read. (October 18, 2014)
The 'Having been" means that Collegiate dictionary from Merriam-Webster has been forbidden to use in writing one's papers and assignments since the mid-1960s? (from 1960s to 2014)
It's a reviews that I read. (October 18, 2014)
The 'Having been" means that Collegiate dictionary from Merriam-Webster has been forbidden to use in writing one's papers and assignments since the mid-1960s? (from 1960s to 2014)
Top answer
No. It's just a reference to that era - the mid-1960s. having been = was at the time
- No.
- It's just a reference to that era - the mid-1960s.
- having been = was at the time
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1 Answers
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No. It's just a reference to that era - the mid-1960s.
having been = was at the time
having been = was at the time
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