0
Juliaines Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Overlapped vs. overlapping

Hello:

I was wondering which is the difference (if any) between using a past participle or a gerund(?) to premodify a noun in this context:

...the overlapping spheres of household, neighborhood,...

Would it be correct to say the "overlapped spheres of...". If so, would it convey a different meaning?

Thanks for your help.
  

Top answer

the overlapping spheres of household, neighborhood,... I'd say both are correct, but the present participle is more common. ) In post modification, I'd say the usages are more equal.

  • the overlapping spheres of household, neighborhood,...
  • I'd say both are correct, but the present participle is more common.
  • ) In post modification, I'd say the usages are more equal.
  • The shingles are overlapped/overlapping.
  • In my opinion the meanings are the same in both cases.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

6 Answers
0
...the overlapping spheres of household, neighborhood,...

I'd say both are correct, but the present participle is more common.
(Note that "gerunds" function as nouns.)

In post modification, I'd say the usages are more equal.

The shingles are overlapped/overlapping.

In my opinion the meani
0
Hi, and welcome to English Forums.

In some ways, there's not much difference, but when you use the past participle, it can have a sense of someone or something else doing it.

The present participle (the -ing form, which looks the same, but doesn't act the same, as a gerund) can also emphasize that it's ongoing, not something that was done once and left alone.
0
Oh, sorry - I hung out with this on my screen for so long without hitting post that now I'm obsolete.
0
Thank you! Your explanation was very useful.
0
Thank you very much!
0
Grammar Geeknow I'm obsolete
It'll never happen. Emotion: shake

Related Questions