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Mickey Mouse 8241 Posted 10 years ago
Grammar

Ours was a very happy marriage.

As we know, 'ours' is a pronoun and we use pronoun to avoid repeating noun, and pronoun always refers to its antecedent, but in the following example there is no antecedent.
Could anyone explain why we use pronoun here ?
Can we use 'Our marriage was a very happy one" or 'Our marriage was a very happy marriage', or 'our marriage is happy'.

"Ours was a very happy marriage."
  

Top answer

Mickey Mouse 8241 in the following example there is no antecedent. You don't need an antecedent word when the situation itself provides the antecedent. "ours" would have to be the speaker and the person he or she married.

  • Mickey Mouse 8241 in the following example there is no antecedent.
  • You don't need an antecedent word when the situation itself provides the antecedent.
  • "ours" would have to be the speaker and the person he or she married.
  • ", the reference is to the speaker.
  • Thus, your remark, Mickey Mouse 8241 a pronoun always refers to its antecedent is not really true.
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3 Answers
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Mickey Mouse 8241in the following example there is no antecedent.
You don't need an antecedent word when the situation itself provides the antecedent. "ours" would have to be the speaker and the person he or she married. Likewise if you start with "My ..." or "Mine ...", the reference is to the speaker. Thus, your remark,
Mickey Mouse 8241
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Weren't you happy with the response you receivedhttps://www.usingenglish.com/forum/threads/244155-quot-Ours-was-a-very-happy-marriage-quot?
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Because of my poor English, I couldn't understand what he meant exactly.

Thanks.

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