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Tommyek Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

'ought to have done' for future

Hi!

I was wondering if sentence below was correct.

'The builders ought to have finished by the end of next week.'

thank you!
  

Top answer

It's grammatically correct but awkward or unusual, at least in American English. " construction is a Britishism. "

— CSnyder

  • It's grammatically correct but awkward or unusual, at least in American English.
  • " construction is a Britishism.
  • "
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5 Answers
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It's grammatically correct but awkward or unusual, at least in American English. I think the "ought to have finished..." construction is a Britishism. Americans would usually say "The builders should be finished by the end of next week."
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It's correct.

Also, more in keeping with the English spoken here in California:

The builders should be finished by the end of next week.

CJ
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Greetings,

the matter is that ought to (as well as should) frequently themselves refer to the future, so the correct variant is

The builders ought to/should finish by the end of next week.

Ought to/should + perfective aspect ('ought to have finished', for instance) means that the recommendation to finish has not been carried out (in the past)
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My another problem was neatly solved!

The number of my grammar obstacles is decreasing amazingly fast with the help of you!

You are fun to work with!
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TommyekMy another problem was neatly solved!
We don't use the combination my another.

Another (one) of my problems is neatly solved!

CJ
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