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Viceidol Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

ought to have done

0＊ We 01b01font00ought to02font00 have finished02b00 painting the house 01u00by the end of next week02u00. 02br
02br
00Can I use "01b01font00should02font00 have finished02b00" instead in the above sentence? I heard people saying that "ought to" is almost the same as "should", but in this case are they really the same?02br
02br
00And is the one using 01b00"01font00ought to02font00 have finished"02b00 appropriate?02br
02br
00Thank you for taking time answering my question.0-
  

Top answer

0 01blockquote 01cite 10Viceidol12cite 10＊ We 11b 11font 10ought to12font 10 have finished12b 10 painting the house 11u 10by the end of next week12u 10. 12br 10Can I use "11b 11font 10should12font 10 have finished12b 10" instead in the above sentence? 02br 00We should have finished painting the house byt the end of the next week [in the past], but we didn't.

— Philip

  • 0 01blockquote 01cite 10Viceidol12cite 10＊ We 11b 11font 10ought to12font 10 have finished12b 10 painting the house 11u 10by the end of next week12u 10.
  • 12br 10Can I use "11b 11font 10should12font 10 have finished12b 10" instead in the above sentence?
  • 02br 00We should have finished painting the house byt the end of the next week [in the past], but we didn't.
  • 0-
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1 Answers
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0 01blockquote
01cite10Viceidol12cite10＊ We 11b11font10ought to12font10 have finished12b10 painting the house 11u10by the end of next week12u10. 12br
10Can I use "11b11font10should12font10 have finished
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