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Taka Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Otherwise
God's ends and means have been either revealed to, or otherwise perceived by, selected individual in an extra-sensory manner.
If the 'otherwise' were omitted as:
God's ends and means have been either revealed to, or perceived by, selected individual in an extra-sensory manner.
would it make any semantic difference at all?
If the 'otherwise' were omitted as:
God's ends and means have been either revealed to, or perceived by, selected individual in an extra-sensory manner.
would it make any semantic difference at all?
Top answer
Yours tends to suggest that 'revealed to' is merely the flip side of 'perceived by', while the original draws the reader more strongly to think of alternative avenues of perception. It is not a big difference, I think, but it is there.
- Yours tends to suggest that 'revealed to' is merely the flip side of 'perceived by', while the original draws the reader more strongly to think of alternative avenues of perception.
- It is not a big difference, I think, but it is there.
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2 Answers
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Yours tends to suggest that 'revealed to' is merely the flip side of 'perceived by', while the original draws the reader more strongly to think of alternative avenues of perception. It is not a big difference, I think, but it is there.
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