Why do we use the indef. art. a -> /?/ before words that start with a consonant sound? And why do we use the indef. art. an ->/?n/ before words that start with a vowel sound?
The same with the definite article – pronounced like /ð?/ and /ði/
Does someone know if there's a phonetic/phonological or any other reason forthis phenomenon?
I've searched through a whole lot of literature to find out about this, but so far I haven't found anything yet.
Thank you for your reply/replies.
Jordy
Top answer
I'm guessing here, but I think it is simply because pronouncing two consecutive vowel sounds is a bit of a tongue twister and disrupts the flow.
— Ferdis
I'm guessing here, but I think it is simply because pronouncing two consecutive vowel sounds is a bit of a tongue twister and disrupts the flow.
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