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Shadowsinner Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Omitting "for" when denoting time - is it possible?

Hi all,

I was asked this question by a learner of English. Is it okay to omit "for"?

For example:

1) I've been here for 2 days.

2) I've been here 2 days.

Both sound perfectly okay to me. But I don't know if this is because of common usage, or if it's correct English. Can you help? Also, what's the explanation for the omission of "for"?

Another example:

1) The typhoon hadn't been here for 2 days when it left.

2) The typhoon hadn't been here 2 days when it left.

Thanks in advance.

  

Top answer

1) I've been here for 2 days. 2) I've been here 2 days. 1) The typhoon hadn't been here for 2 days when it left.

— CalifJim

  • 1) I've been here for 2 days.
  • 2) I've been here 2 days.
  • 1) The typhoon hadn't been here for 2 days when it left.
  • 2) The typhoon hadn't been here 2 days when it left.
  • All four of your sentences are fine.
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1 Answers
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1) I've been here for 2 days.
2) I've been here 2 days.
1) The typhoon hadn't been here for 2 days when it left.
2) The typhoon hadn't been here 2 days when it left.

All four of your sentences are fine. Note, however, that one-digit numbers are spelled out: two, not 2.

CJ

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