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Silak12 Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Of John's vs of ours

Hi everyone.

Could you tell me whether "John's" and "ours" are serving the same grammatical function? If they are? Could you tell me what it is?

There is no dog of John's here.

(I know the above sentence is weird but I am just interested in knowing whether the possessive function of "of john's" is the same as "of ours" in the sentence below.)

This age of ours is seeing a new rise of evil.

Thanks!

  

Top answer

Yes, they are essentially the same. "John's" and "ours" are both possessives. The terminology to distinguish "our/John's" from "ours/John's" varies and can be a bit confusing.

— GPY

  • Yes, they are essentially the same.
  • "John's" and "ours" are both possessives.
  • The terminology to distinguish "our/John's" from "ours/John's" varies and can be a bit confusing.
  • org/wiki/Possessive .
  • g.
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1 Answers
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Yes, they are essentially the same. "John's" and "ours" are both possessives. The terminology to distinguish "our/John's" from "ours/John's" varies and can be a bit confusing. There is some information at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Possessive . Other than with pronouns, the two types are identical in form,

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