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Andrei Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

Of Hinduism and of an extensive philosophical ...

Sanskrit is an ancient language of India, the language of the Vedas, of Hinduism, and of an extensive philosophical and scientific literature dating from the beginning of the first millennium B.C. It is the oldest recorded member of the Indic branch of the Indo-European family of languages; recognition of the existence of the Indo-European family arose in the 18th century from a comparison of Sanskrit with Greek and Latin. Although it is used only for religious purposes, it is one of the official languages of India.
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I t is correct to say Sanskrit is an ancient language of India and the language of the Veddhas.

If you look at the very first sentence of the above, the grammatical nature is warped, as far as I understand.

You will read the words 'of Hinduism' . Shouldn't it be 'language of Hinduism'?

You will read the words 'and of an extensive philosophical and ......
Is the word 'of' necessary here?

Your comments please. I copied the above from a dictionary
  

Top answer

C. Each "of" below can be paraphrased as "used in". Sanskrit is an ancient language of India.

  • C.
  • Each "of" below can be paraphrased as "used in".
  • Sanskrit is an ancient language of India.
  • Sanskrit is the language of the Vedas.
  • Sanskrit is the language of Hinduism.
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8 Answers
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Sanskrit is an ancient language of India, the language of the Vedas, of Hinduism, and of an extensive philosophical and scientific literature dating from the beginning of the first millennium B.C.

Each "of" below can be paraphrased as "used in".

Sanskrit is an ancient language of India.
Sanskrit is the language of the Vedas.
Sanskrit is the language of Hinduism.
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CalifJim

What a great explanation is this ! I will copy this and hang on my wall; because I was not aware of the ways of writing such a sentence with the preposition 'of'.

I wouldn't write the following:
Spanish is the language of Spain, of Mexico, of Colombia, and of Argentina.


The way I write is " Spanish is the language of Spain, Mexico, Colombia and A
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"of" and "in" mean almost the same thing in

Spanish is the language of Spain.
Spanish is the language in Spain.

The usual phrasing is the first. It says that Spanish is the language associated with Spain. The second slightly emphasizes the idea that if you were actually in Spain, people around you would be speaking Spanish. It is not as common to say this becaus
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Calif

You would say I have a good command of Spanish, wouldn't you.

It would be incorrect to say I have a good command in Spanish. I don't know why.
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What is wrong with saying I have a good command in Spanish?
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'Have a command of' is the phrase we use when we describe someone's grasp of a language.

'Have a command in' would mean 'command' in the sense of 'military authority'. I'm not sure whether it's still used in military circles.

('I have a command in Russia' might mean 'I have been given a regiment of infantry to command in Russia', for example.)

The phrase 'I have a go
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It's simply a standard combination: "command of". The "of" comes from "command", not from "Spanish". "command of" is "mastery of". Without the correct preposition "of", the word "command" is reduced to its more basic meaning of "order".

"in Spanish" suggests "spoken in the Spanish language"

It is possible to contextualize "I have a good command in Spanish", but it won't me
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CalifJim

Again it was a great answer from you. I am happy that we have a person of your calibre around us. To get an answer for such minute differences in English, you should have a sound knowledge. There are some ´native English speakers around me. I discussed this one with them; but they failed provide a reliable answer.

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