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Deborahjeong Posted 9 years ago
Grammar
Of him subjective or objective
1) She is proud of his being a teacher.
2) She is proud of him being a teacher.
I understand that as far as the interpretation goes, his is subjective in sentence 1 (the subject of being a teacher) while being is gerund.
My question is Is him in sentence 2 subjective as well?
I think that him is objective (the object of the preposition of) and being right after him is a present participle modifying him, right?
Well I am not sure. Could you help me clarify it? Thanks.
Top answer
In traditional grammar, the rule was to use a possessive pronoun before a gerund. In contemporary speech, this "rule" is being eroded, and often the objective case is used instead. The two sentences have the same meaning.
- In traditional grammar, the rule was to use a possessive pronoun before a gerund.
- In contemporary speech, this "rule" is being eroded, and often the objective case is used instead.
- The two sentences have the same meaning.
- However, they seem unduly formal.
- She is proud of his teaching career.
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2 Answers
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In traditional grammar, the rule was to use a possessive pronoun before a gerund.
In contemporary speech, this "rule" is being eroded, and often the objective case is used instead.
The two sentences have the same meaning. However, they seem unduly formal.
She is proud of his teaching career. She is proud that he is a teacher.
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deborahjeongI understand that as far as the interpretation goes, his is subjective in sentence 1 (the subject of being a teacher) while being is gerund.
Correct.
deborahjeongMy question is Is him in sentence 2 subjective as well?
Semantically (i.e., with regard to meaning) it is the subject or the gerund clause eve
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