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Scythron Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Noun Infinitive
He has to purify the land.
"He has something," therefore, is "to purify the land" an infinitive acting as a noun?
Or
is "has to purify" some type of phrasal with the object "land"?
"He has something," therefore, is "to purify the land" an infinitive acting as a noun?
Or
is "has to purify" some type of phrasal with the object "land"?
Top answer
The best way (I think) to treat 'have to' is as a semi-modal auxiliary followed by a bare infinitive, so that 'land' is DO of 'purify'. In any case, 'have' here does not represent possession as it can as a main verb; in fact, it means nothing at all standing alone without its particle 'to'. With 'to', 'have to' = 'must', approximately.
- The best way (I think) to treat 'have to' is as a semi-modal auxiliary followed by a bare infinitive, so that 'land' is DO of 'purify'.
- In any case, 'have' here does not represent possession as it can as a main verb; in fact, it means nothing at all standing alone without its particle 'to'.
- With 'to', 'have to' = 'must', approximately.
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1 Answers
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The best way (I think) to treat 'have to' is as a semi-modal auxiliary followed by a bare infinitive, so that 'land' is DO of 'purify'. In any case, 'have' here does not represent possession as it can as a main verb; in fact, it means nothing at all standing alone without its particle 'to'. With 'to', 'have to' = 'must', approximately.
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