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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Noun + enough

"There's a cave, boy, a cave of wonders filled with treasures beyond your wildest dreams, treasure enough to impress even your Princess."



Can someone please explain this phrase to me? It sounds odd (archaic or literary).

(I understand that this is re-stating 'treasure' to elabourate further on it, but .)

Thanks
  

Top answer

Treasure has no article and no plural s and is thus used as an uncountable noun. That isn't particularly uncommon. Many countable nouns admit of such usage: I'm not man enough for her!

  • Treasure has no article and no plural s and is thus used as an uncountable noun.
  • That isn't particularly uncommon.
  • Many countable nouns admit of such usage: I'm not man enough for her!
  • CB
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3 Answers
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Treasure has no article and no plural s and is thus used as an uncountable noun. That isn't particularly uncommon. Many countable nouns admit of such usage: I'm not man enough for her!

CB
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Hi, Cool Breeze

My question actually pertains to the phrase 'treasure enough to...", not to the noun itself.

I've never seen such a phrase before, where enough follows the noun to which it modifies. Normally, I read it as 'which is enough treasure to...'

I hope this is clear. Cheers.
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English 1b3My question actually pertains to the phrase 'treasure enough to...", not to the noun itself.
Treasure is a noun and enough is usually placed before nouns. However, no grammatical rule says it cannot follow a noun even though this isn't very common:

I have enough

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