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Anonymous Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Noun before a Verb
My friend is reading Twilight and he came across this sentence: "Tell me" he finally commanded after persuasion failed.
He's not a native English speaker but I am. I was wondering how to explain that "persuasion failed" in this sentence is correct, even though he says that from what he knows "failed persuasion" should be correct. I know that "failed persuasion" is wrong though but I am not sure how to explain that to him. Can someone please help me?
He's not a native English speaker but I am. I was wondering how to explain that "persuasion failed" in this sentence is correct, even though he says that from what he knows "failed persuasion" should be correct. I know that "failed persuasion" is wrong though but I am not sure how to explain that to him. Can someone please help me?
Top answer
Hi, 'After persuasion failed' is a subordinate clause in which 'persuasion ' is the subject and 'failed' is the Simple Past Tense verb. Here's the idea. He tried persuasion.
- Hi, 'After persuasion failed' is a subordinate clause in which 'persuasion ' is the subject and 'failed' is the Simple Past Tense verb.
- Here's the idea.
- He tried persuasion.
- Persuasion failed.
- After that, he finally commanded, 'Tell me'.
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1 Answers
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Hi,
'After persuasion failed' is a subordinate clause in which 'persuasion ' is the subject and 'failed' is the Simple Past Tense verb.
Here's the idea.
He tried persuasion. Persuasion failed. After that, he finally commanded, 'Tell me'.
'After persuasion failed' is a subordinate clause in which 'persuasion ' is the subject and 'failed' is the Simple Past Tense verb.
Here's the idea.
He tried persuasion. Persuasion failed. After that, he finally commanded, 'Tell me'.
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