" (the same meaning - nothing to eat) but - is this correct? "?? " This is incorrect.
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Emily__"There was nothing at all to eat.""There was anything at all t
"There was anything at all to eat." (the same meaning - nothing to eat) but - is this correct?
"There was hardly anything to eat." (there could be something after all)
Could I also say "It was hardly anything/nothing at all to eat there."??
InchoateknowledgeThere was hardly anything to eat.As for "There was nothing to eat at all" vs. "There was nothing at all to eat", I'd say both are correct. If there is any slig
Or
The was nothing to eat at all.
The was nothing at all to eat sound strange but I do not know any rule that forbids such syntax.
CalifJim"There was nothing at all to eat." CORRECT
"There was anything at all to eat." (the same meaning - nothing to eat) but - is this correct? INCORRECT
"There was hardly anything to eat." (there could be something after all) CORRECT
Could I also say "It was hardly anything/nothing at all to eat there."?? NO. Say: There
What about "There was nothing to eat at all" vs. "There was nothing at all to eat"?
AnonymousIn english you cannot have a double negative EVER, like "you can't say nothing"You can say "Say something, come on! You can't say nothing!"