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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Vocabulary

Nothing short of

Hi.

"A the start of the season, if someone had offered them fourth, most would have taken it but they've been nothing short of fabulous for three or four months, breathtaking. " [From the BBC website.]

Is the participle being implied in the phrase nothing short of fabulous ?

Thank you.
  

Top answer

I don't understand your question. You have a "be" word there, "been".

  • I don't understand your question.
  • You have a "be" word there, "been".
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4 Answers
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I don't understand your question. You have a "be" word there, "been".
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Blue JayI don't understand your question. You have a "be" word there, "been".
What I mean is: nothing short of [being] fabulous.
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Nothing short of merely emphasizes that they have been fabulous. The basic sentence is "They have been fabulous." You already have a "be" verb in there. It would be redundant to say "They have been being fabulous"
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Thank you, BJ, for your useful reply. Indeed, I've not noticed that it refers back to to the clause they've been and that nothing short of may be removed from the sentence without distorting the main information that they've been fabulous.

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