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Navitasan Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

Nothing compared to losing you

1) The pain of this wound is nothing compared to losing her.

Does '1' mean exactly the same as:

2) The pain of this wound is nothing compared to that of losing her.


It all boils down to the same thing, but in '1' a pain is compared to 'losing her', not to the 'pain caused by losing her'. I do understand '1', but still find it a bit strange.


Gratefully,

Navi.

  

Top answer

navitasan Does '1' mean exactly the same as: Near enough. navitasan I do understand '1', but still find it a bit strange. When we come across sentences that do not literally compare like with like, I think that common sense usually tells us what is actually meant.

  • navitasan Does '1' mean exactly the same as: Near enough.
  • navitasan I do understand '1', but still find it a bit strange.
  • When we come across sentences that do not literally compare like with like, I think that common sense usually tells us what is actually meant.
  • In this case, I am not convinced that it is entirely illogical to compare the pain of a wound to "losing her", but probably the author intended to compare it with "the pain of losing her", which would be written explicitly as #2, as you know.
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1 Answers
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navitasanDoes '1' mean exactly the same as:

Near enough.

navitasan I do understand '1', but still find it a bit strange.

When we come across sentences that do not literally compare like with like, I think that common sense usually tells us what is actually meant. In this case, I am not convinced that it is entirely

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