Not since the...
? Not since the Crusades of the Middle Ages has Islam evoked the degree of fear, hostility, and ethnic and religious stereotyping that is evident throughout Western culture today.
Source: https://g.co/kgs/DP9kRZ
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Hasibrahman Could anyone please explain the part in bold here? Is "inversion" used here? Yes.
- Hasibrahman Could anyone please explain the part in bold here?
- Is "inversion" used here?
- Yes.
- Without inversion, the grammar becomes cumbersome—misleading, even: Islam has not evoked the degree of fear, hostility, and ethnic and religious stereotyping that is evident throughout Western culture today since the Crusades of the Middle Ages.
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Hasibrahman Could anyone please explain the part in bold here? Is "inversion" used here?
Yes. Without inversion, the grammar becomes cumbersome—misleading, even:
Islam has not evoked the degree of fear, hostility, and ethnic and religious stereotyping that is evident throughout Western culture today since the Crusades of the Middle Ages.
0HasibrahmanIs "inversion" used here?
Yes. It's the introductory negative adverbial phrase (not since ...) that triggers the inversion.
Both 'not since' and 'not until' follow this pattern.
Not since adolescence had I spent so much time worrying about how I come across.
Not since the Great Depression has the outlook for s
0
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