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Tarirotari Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Not have as much money as it would be perfect

We don't have as much money as it would be perfect

I'm sure this sentence is wrong, but I can't explain why. The thing that keeps me wondering is that, in fact, if you take the same sentence but phrased as follows, it is correct:

It would be perfect for us to have more money.

So why exactly can't we transform this second structure into the first sentence above.
  

Top answer

Because it is not transformed accurately. We don't have as much money as would be perfect . The meaningless 'it' disappears with the preposition 'for', since we now (above) have a real subject.

  • Because it is not transformed accurately.
  • We don't have as much money as would be perfect .
  • The meaningless 'it' disappears with the preposition 'for', since we now (above) have a real subject.
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2 Answers
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Because it is not transformed accurately.

We don't have as much money as would be perfect.

The meaningless 'it' disappears with the preposition 'for', since we now (above) have a real subject.
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Of course! Thanks a lot!

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