0
Moon7296 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar

nor inversion?

American society insists that its young people move away from their families at eighteen or nineteen years of age. Of course, not all youg people leave home at eighteen, nor do most paents want their children to leave.

Q) I don't understand the underlined part's structure.
We use inversion for a neither ... nor phrase like below but I don't understand the underlined part.

1. Neither does he like it nor does he need it.
2. Neither does he like it nor need it.
3. Neither does he like nor need it.
4. He neither likes nor needs it.
  

Top answer

moon7296 the underlined part There is no underlined part. I assume it's the last sentence, more or less. The negative in the first clause has nothing to do with the verb.

— CalifJim

  • moon7296 the underlined part There is no underlined part.
  • I assume it's the last sentence, more or less.
  • The negative in the first clause has nothing to do with the verb.
  • It goes with "all".
  • Therefore there is no inversion.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

5 Answers
0
moon7296the underlined part
There is no underlined part. I assume it's the last sentence, more or less.

The negative in the first clause has nothing to do with the verb. It goes with "all". Therefore there is no inversion.

[ Not all of them ] leave home, nor do their parents want them to leave.

But,

Neither do a
0
0
CalifJimnor do their parents want them to leave.
Ah.. sorry that I didn't underline this part. I need to edit in order to put an extra effect after I make a question first. Anyway..

Um.. My question is why "do" is added when that clause is connected with another clause "not all...,?"
0
0
The statement being made in the second part is "most parents do not want their children to leave". When this is linked to a previous negative statement. "do not" transforms to "nor do" and moves to the front. "nor do" is not specifically in response to "not all.."; the same pattern can be used to link negative statements generally. For example,

"I don't like tea" + " I don't like c
0
0
Oh, and the same too with other auxiliaries:

"I have not visited France" + "I have not visited Spain" = "I have not visited France; nor have I visited Spain"
0
0
moon7296My question is why "do" is added when that clause is connected with another clause "not all...,?
I'm not sure what you are asking about. Each clause is treated separately in this kind of construction. The connection of two clauses into one sentence doesn't affect anything.
_____________

When a verb phrase already has an auxiliary
0

Related Questions