Welcome to Everyone!
I am a college student from Hungary and I really need your help with my homework.
Here is the thing.
Some grammars assume that nonfinites (infinitives, gerunds and participles) are inflectional forms
of the English verb -> they are all verbs.
Some grammars also assume that they are not inflectional forms but they belong to totally
different syntactical categories.
These two assumptions lead to a contradiction and the grammar cannot contain both of them.
The question is:
Which assumption do you think should be abandoned? Why?
Thank you for your opinion in advance!
Since it is your homework, you should make an effort to formulate some ideas yourself. Post them here in essay form and we will review them.
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