"none" plural or singular?

Question

Being something of a grammar novice, I could use a little clarification from this group.
An example sentence in a grammar book reads as follows:

"None of your answers is correct."
The oject of the preposition 'answers' being plural does not modify the verb. However, the subject 'none' refers to zero out of some total amount -with that total always being plural. It can't be considered singular, can it? In my natural speech, I always modify the verb 'to be' into the plural 'are' in this situation. Am I wrong to do so? Even if we remove the preposition, 'are' still sounds more natural.
None are correct.
If we use any verb other than 'to be', 'none' is treated as plural, correct?
None of them seem happy. (not 'seems'?)
So is this a textbook error? Or do I just have bad grammar?

Usenet · Accepted Answer

[nq:1]Being something of a grammar novice, I could use a little clarification from this group. An example sentence in a ... to zero out of some total amount -with that total always being plural. It can't be considered singular, can it?[/nq]
Sure it can. And it can also be considered plural.
[nq:1]In my natural speech, I always modify the verb 'to be' into the plural 'are' in this situation. Am I wrong to do so? Even if we remove the preposition, 'are' still sounds more natural.[/nq]
To you. Others differ. I don't much care one way or the other,
[nq:1]None are correct. If we use any verb other than 'to be', 'none' is treated as plural, correct?[/nq]
No. There's no such rule. The choice of verb does not control whether "none" is treated as singular or plural.
[nq:1]None of them seem happy. (not 'seems'?) So is this a textbook error? Or do I just have bad grammar?[/nq]
Your grammar in real-world use isn't all that bad. Indeed, your actual performance is better than your understanding of why it works as it works.
Without regard to what the verb is, the choice of singular or plural verb with "none" depends primarily on what you are talking about and how the sentence is constructed. Here's a very helpful note from the American Heritage Dictionary online:
It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word "(illegible character)n," "one," but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today.

Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story.

. See . Other usage books say similar things.

Bob Lieblich
None but the lonely heart ...

Usenet · Answer

[nq:1]Being something of a grammar novice, I could use a little clarification from this group. An example sentence in a ... more natural. None are correct. If we use any verb other than 'to be', 'none' is treated as plural, correct?[/nq]
I think your conclusion(s) is(are) second to none and that I am none the worse for the experience

[/nq]
I was taught in JHS that none, some, and all can be singular or plural depending on.. well I forget what it depended on, but I go with whatever sounds right.
I think there are one or two other words in the same category.
s/ meirman If you are emailing me please
say if you are posting the same response.
Born west of Pittsburgh Pa. 10 years
Indianapolis, 7 years
Chicago, 6 years
Brooklyn NY 12 years
Baltimore 20 years

Usenet · Answer

[nq:1] Without regard to what the verb is, the choice of singular or plural verb with "none" depends primarily on what you are talking about and how the sentence is constructed. [/nq]
Also, it is interesting that "zero," as an attributive, is plural. Five, four, three, and two are plural, one is singular, and then zero is plural again.
Three students were Canadian, and one was Mexican, but zero students were American.
\P. Schultz

Usenet · Answer

[nq:1]When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee.[/nq]
Hmm... This is an interesting sentence. I would be inclined to restrict this use of almost to mass nouns, e.g., 'Almost none of the wine was spilt.' Does 'almost none of the officials' strike anyone as incongruous? I would probably have used 'few' instead of 'almost none', although I appreciate that they're not quite the same.

Sebastian.

Usenet · Answer

[nq:1]Being something of a grammar novice, I could use a little clarification from this group. An example sentence in a ... more natural. None are correct. If we use any verb other than 'to be', 'none' is treated as plural, correct?[/nq]
I think your conclusion(s) is(are) second to none and that I am none the worse for the experience

Incidentally 'second to none' (superior) can also be expressed as 'takes the cake' (see my 'easy as pie', 'a piece of cake' thread)

"none" plural or singular?

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