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Vincent Teo Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

None of them has / have

Please let me know which of the following is correct:

1) None of them have let their families know yet.
2) None of them has let her / his family know yet.

When I was in school, I was taught that words like “Each of them”, “One of them” and “None of them” should be followed by a singular verb
  

Top answer

Vincent Teo When I was in school, I was taught that words like “Each of them”, “One of them” and “None of them” should be followed by a singular verb. That is not surprising. The singular is recommended in all those cases.

  • Vincent Teo When I was in school, I was taught that words like “Each of them”, “One of them” and “None of them” should be followed by a singular verb.
  • That is not surprising.
  • The singular is recommended in all those cases.
  • Nevertheless, a great many people use the plural after "None of them", and have been doing so for a very long time.
  • CJ
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1 Answers
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Vincent TeoWhen I was in school, I was taught that words like “Each of them”, “One of them” and “None of them” should be followed by a singular verb.
That is not surprising. The singular is recommended in all those cases. Nevertheless, a great many people use the plural after "None of them", and have been doing so for a very long time.

CJ

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