None of his sons could land a job...
1) None of his sons could land a job in the government service. (Here we're talking only about the past)
2) None of his sons was/were able to land a job in the government service.
3) None of his sons has/have managed to land a job in the government service.
Do (1), (2) and (3) mean exactly the same thing? If not, what would be the difference, please? Also, is the following sentence correct?
4) None of his sons has/have been able to land a job in the government service.
Note: I know that to some "was able to/has managed to" seems correct, and to others, "were able to/have managed to". So, in the present thread, I'm not really concerned about them/their difference.
Top answer
Rizan Malik Do (1), (2) and (3) mean exactly the same thing? Yes, and (4) does, too, except that the aspect differs slightly: (1) and (2) (because of the past tense) can be prefixed by "At that time". (3) and (4) (because of the present perfect) can be prefixed by "So far".
- Rizan Malik Do (1), (2) and (3) mean exactly the same thing?
- Yes, and (4) does, too, except that the aspect differs slightly: (1) and (2) (because of the past tense) can be prefixed by "At that time".
- (3) and (4) (because of the present perfect) can be prefixed by "So far".
- CJ By the way, it's in the government service .
- No the .
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Rizan MalikDo (1), (2) and (3) mean exactly the same thing?
Yes, and (4) does, too, except that the aspect differs slightly:
(1) and (2) (because of the past tense) can be prefixed by "At that time".
(3) and (4) (because of the present perfect) can be prefixed by "So far".
CJ
By the way, it's in the government service
0Rizan Malikthe government service.
This is strange because civil service https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Civil_service is the usual term.
0
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